I think this new "clarification" is more opaque than before. Let me propose a common scenario in our club: Khorne Bloodlords vs. Sylvaneth. Bloodlords General attacks at the start of the combat phase. Spirit of Durthu does a stomp at the start of the combat phase that makes a unit fight last.
Prior to the December FAQ, whoever's turn it was took priority. On Khorne's turn, he'd strike first. On Sylvaneth's turn, the stomp could go off before Khorne attacked first, dumping him to the end of the sequence. Pretty simple.
Has this new FAQ changed that in any way? Because if effects are resolved in player turn order, it seems the above scenario is now *reversed.* For example, Khorne player turn: General attacks first because it's his turn. At "start of phase," Durthu successfully stomps. That effect occurred second, so now Khorne General attacks last in his combat phase. However, on Sylvaneth player turn, stomp goes off first because it's his turn, and then Khorne supercedes the effect and goes first because it is applied second.
Am I reading this right? Is this as counter-intuitive as it seems?
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drkrash
I think this new "clarification" is more opaque than before. Let me propose a common scenario in our club: Khorne Bloodlords vs. Sylvaneth. Bloodlords General attacks at the start of the combat phase. Spirit of Durthu does a stomp at the start of the combat phase that makes a unit fight last.
Prior to the December FAQ, whoever's turn it was took priority. On Khorne's turn, he'd strike first. On Sylvaneth's turn, the stomp could go off before Khorne attacked first, dumping him to the end of the sequence. Pretty simple.
Has this new FAQ changed that in any way? Because if effects are resolved in player turn order, it seems the above scenario is now *reversed.* For example, Khorne player turn: General attacks first because it's his turn. At "start of phase," Durthu successfully stomps. That effect occurred second, so now Khorne General attacks last in his combat phase. However, on Sylvaneth player turn, stomp goes off first because it's his turn, and then Khorne supercedes the effect and goes first because it is applied second.
Am I reading this right? Is this as counter-intuitive as it seems?
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